Is it wrong to drink beer or wine?

"Was the wine that Jesus drank the same as wine today?"

There isn't really much difference between the wine made in Jesus' day and the wine made today. The process of fermentation FOR WINE is similar. However, after the time of the New Testament the invention of distillation rather than fermentation greatly increased the alcoholic content and made liquor possible. This type of strong drink was not available in Bible times.

Concerning Jesus turning water to wine at the marriage feast, I believe that God DID approve of Jesus' action. There are a number of references to Jesus drinking wine (examples: Luke 7:34; John 19:29). We know from the writings of the Jewish rabbis and the writings of the early church that the wine used in Passover/communion was one part alcoholic wine to 4 parts water. My understanding of the Bible is that the drinking of wine is acceptable. It is the abuse of alcoholic beverages that is sin. What the Bible speaks against is drunkenness, not drinking.

"But how can you drink wine and not feel its affect? People always say "there ain't nothing wrong w/ drinking as long as you don't get drunk", but the truth is even if you only have one glass of wine (not communion wine) you may not be so drunk where you'll fall over, but it will have some affect on you....right? And won't that be bad so to speak in GOD's eyes?"

Apparently this mild affect of wine isn't bad in God's eyes: "God makes grass grow for the cattle, and plants for man to cultivate - bringing forth food from the earth: wine that gladdens the heart of man, oil to make his face shine, and bread that sustains his heart." (Psalm 104:14-15). Note that in this passage "God makes... wine that gladdens the heart." Wine is viewed as a gift from God.

This discussion of drinking brings up a broader issue that you might want to think about. I think that many Christians have a Greek view rather than a Jewish view of God's creation. By the time of the New Testament, the Greeks had become very anti-materialistic. The Greeks divided reality into two parts: spirit, which they thought of as good, and matter which they thought of as evil (or at the very least inferior to the spirit). This is why the Greeks sought to free their spirit from the body. The goal of this life was to purify the spirit and free it from matter. As a result, the Greeks (and Romans) burned the person's body upon death. The material was evil and something to be left behind. And if you really wanted to free your soul, you would avoid bodily pleasures and material things. The ascetic (the person who did without things) was viewed as the most likely to gain happiness in the next life.

The Jews, on the other hand, followed the Old Testament view of seeing the creation as good. God looked at all He had created and said that "it was very good" (Genesis 1:31). Even after the fall, no "thing" is evil in and of itself (1 Timothy 4:4). The Jews had a very upbeat view of material things. The physical body was viewed as something to take with you into the next life - hence, bodies were not burned, but buried to await resurrection (Genesis 15:15; 23:19-20; 25:9; 35:8,19,29; 47:30; John 19:38-42). The Jewish view of sex (in marriage) is very positive (Proverbs 5:18-19; Song of Songs; 1 Corinthians 7:3-5,33-34; Hebrews 13:4). Likewise food, wine, dancing, money, etc. are all viewed as good things that we can take pleasure in as long as they are used according to God's commandments (Ecclesiastes 5:18-20; 8:15; 9:7-9; Psalm 16:11; Romans 14:14). At the risk of being misunderstood, I believe the Bible teaches a view of "Christian hedonism" - not living for pleasure, but living for God and enjoying all that He has created for our benefit and enjoyment (1 Timothy 4:1-5).

But sometimes Christian views on drinking, sex, or money come more from a Greek perspective than a Biblical perspective. In order to protect ourselves and others or in an attempt to become more holy or pure, we add rules or commandments that aren't in the Bible. But when we do that (even if we do it for a good motive), we have become legalists, rather than grace-oriented children of God. The Bible is clear that drinking alcoholic beverages (without becoming drunk) is an acceptable activity. In fact, Jesus even chose wine as an element for the Lord's supper. ONLY drunkenness is viewed as a sin (Proverbs 23:29-35; Ephesians 5:18). We can be tempted to add to God's commandments, because of the dreadfulness of alcoholism, drunk drivers, or simply observing the stupidity of drunk people.

However, if it isn't prohibited in the Bible or cannot be reasonably deduced from Biblical principles, then it's best that we not add to God's Word.

How accurate is the english bible as we know it today?

For example, take this Hebrew text from Matthew 6:19-24:

"Lay not up for yourselves treasures upon earth, where moth and rust doth corrupt, and where thieves break through and steal: But lay up for yourselves treasures in heaven, where neither moth nor rust doth corrupt, and where thieves do not break through nor steal: For where your treasure is, there will your heart be also. The light of the body is the eye: if therefore thine eye be single, thy whole body shall be full of light. But if thine eye be evil, thy whole body shall be full of darkness. If therefore the light that is in thee be darkness, how great is that darkness! No man can serve two masters: for either he will hate the one, and love the other; or else he will hold to the one, and despise the other. Ye cannot serve God and mammon."

In these verses we have Yeshua speaking about money(Yeshua is the original Hebrew proper name for Jesus of Nazareth), and not making it more important than God. Note that He begins speaking about money, then says something about "an evil eye," then finishes His statement about money. If this were penned in Greek originally, you would have to ask, "Why this odd verse about an "evil eye" in the midst of a money topic?" It makes no sense. However, if you happen to know that having an "evil eye" is a Hebrew idiom of that time for "being stingy with your money," then, a) the passage makes sense, and b) you realize it HAD to be written in Hebrew first, then whoever translated it into Greek, (unaware of the idiom), simply took it word-for-word from Hebrew into the Greek.

There are many "New Testament" verses that are very hard, if not impossible, to understand without knowledge of the deeper teachings of the Judaism of that day. There are also many places where Yeshua and Paul quote from Jewish literature as shown elsewhere in this study: http://www.yashanet.com/studies/matstudy/mat3a.htm

It is important to note who these letters were originally meant to be read by "leaders" in the Messianic community (most likely Jews), who were well versed in the Judaism of the first century and its understanding of Torah.. (Note Peter's concerns about Paul's letters being hard to understand and often twisted about by "lawless" people -- "lawless" meaning not knowing or respecting Torah, the "Law.")

Nothing in the "New Testament" was ever meant to be read out of context, by people from another culture ignorant of the Hebrew meaning to the words and the concepts behind them, and replacing this with their own personal meaning. Nor were any of the "New Testament" documents ever meant to stand on their own, apart from being interpreted in the context of the Torah (God's direct revelation/instruction), which of course came first.